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Civil Services Prelims Examination Indian Polity & Governance - GS Paper I

Civil Services Examination 2019


1. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

  1. First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
  2. Rajamannar Committee (1969)
  3. Sarkaria Commission (1983)
  4. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)


2. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

  1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
  2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
  3. Finance Commission
  4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
  5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 3, 4 and 5
  4. 2 and 5


3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


4. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

  1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
  2. Absence of restraint
  3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
  4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully


5. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

  1. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
  2. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
  3. In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
  4. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.


6. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
  2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


7. Consider the following statements:

  1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
  2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


8. Consider the following statements:

  1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4


9. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. Morarji Desai


10. Consider the following statements:

  1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
  2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
  3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self- sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


11. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
  2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
  3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well- defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


12. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

  1. Third Schedule
  2. Fifth Schedule
  3. Ninth Schedule
  4. Twelfth Schedule


13. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 21
  3. Article 25
  4. Article 29


14. Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
  2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
  3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Civil Services Examination 2018


1. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

  1. The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
  2. The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
  3. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
  4. The President can make laws relating to that State.


2. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

  1. Limitation of powers
  2. Equality before law
  3. People’s responsibility to the Government
  4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


3. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
  2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


4. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

  1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
  2. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
  3. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
  4. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.


5. Consider the following statements:

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


6. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
  2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
  3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
  4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.


7. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


8. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

  1. Committee on Government Assurances
  2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  3. Rules Committee
  4. Business Advisory Committee


9. Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90% of teacher in education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only


10. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


11. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

  1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
  2. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
  3. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
  4. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution


12. Consider the following statements:

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


Civil Services Examination 2017


1. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

  1. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
  2. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
  3. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
  4. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.


2. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

  1. There is an independent judiciary in India.
  2. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
  3. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
  4. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.


3. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


4. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


5. In India, Judicial Review implies

  1. The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
  2. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
  3. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
  4. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.


6. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 only


7. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

  1. Fundamental Right
  2. Natural Right
  3. Constitutional Right
  4. Legal Right


8. Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


9. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

  1. anyone residing in India.
  2. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
  3. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
  4. any citizen of India.


10. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1. Adjournment Motion
  2. Question Hour
  3. Supplementary Questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


11. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

  1. The executive and legislature work independently.
  2. It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
  3. The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
  4. The head of the government cannot be changed without election.


12. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

  1. Rights are correlative with Duties.
  2. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
  3. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
  4. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.


13. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

  1. The Preamble
  2. The Fundamental Rights
  3. The Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. The Fundamental Duties


14. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

  1. The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
  2. The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
  3. A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
  4. A band of dedicated party workers.


15. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

  1. Liberty of thought
  2. Economic liberty
  3. Liberty of expression
  4. Liberty of belief


16. Which of the following statements is / are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


17. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

  1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only


18. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

  1. Federalism
  2. Democratic decentralisation
  3. Administrative delegation
  4. Direct democracy


19. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. Legislative function.
  2. Executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


20. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

  1. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  2. Participation of workers in the management of industries
  3. Right to work, education and public assistance
  4. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers


21. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
  2. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
  3. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
  4. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.


22. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

  1. Privileges
  2. Restraints
  3. Competition
  4. Ideology


23. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Civil Services Examination 2016


1. Consider the following statements:

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


2. With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?

  1. List of ingredients including additives
  2. Nutrition information
  3. Recommendations, if any made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
  4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1 and 4 Only


3. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passes by the

  1. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
  2. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
  3. Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
  4. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting


4. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


5. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
  2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Civil Services Examination 2015


1. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Seventh Schedule


2. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

  1. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
  2. Parliament can amend the Constitution
  3. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
  4. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha


3. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

  1. People’s participation in development
  2. Political accountability
  3. Democratic decentralization
  4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
  2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


5. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the:

  1. Preamble of the Constitution
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Fundamental Duties


6. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:

  1. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
  2. determine the boundaries between States
  3. determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
  4. protect the interests of all the border States


7. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
  2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


8. Who / Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

  1. The President of India
  2. The Prime Minister of India
  3. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
  4. The Supreme Court of India


9. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is / are correct?

  1. It recommended a federal government.
  2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
  3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. None


10. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
  2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


11. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

  1. The Principles spells out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
  2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


12. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
  2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
  3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


13. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

  1. a simple majority of members present and voting
  2. three-fourths majority of members present and voting
  3. two-thirds majority of the Houses
  4. absolute majority of the Houses



Civil Services Examination 2014


1. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

  1. Advisory Jurisdiction
  2. Appellate Jurisdiction
  3. Original Jurisdiction
  4. Writ Jurisdiction


2. Consider the following statements:

  1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


3. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

  1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


4. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


5. Consider the following statements:

A Constitutional Government is one which

  1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
  2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


6. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
  2. Appointing the Ministers
  3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


7. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

  1. the President of India
  2. the Parliament
  3. the Chief Justice of India
  4. the Law Commission


8. In the constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

  1. Preamble to the Constitution
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties
  4. Ninth Schedule


9. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

  1. Second Schedule
  2. Fifth Schedule
  3. Eighth Schedule
  4. Tenth Schedule


10. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the parliament?

  1. The Committee on Public Accounts
  2. The Committee on Estimates
  3. The Committee on Public Undertakings
  4. The Committee on petitions


Civil Services Examination 2013


1. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


2. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


3. Consider the following statements:

  1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3


4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


5. With reference to National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), consider the following statements:

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


6. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


7. Consider the following statements:

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

  1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
  2. scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
  3. examines the report of the Auditor examines the report Comptroller and General of India

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


8. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties


9. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of Indian Constitution has been provided in

  1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
  2. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. None of the above


10. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

  1. To provide self-governance
  2. To recognize traditional rights
  3. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
  4. To free tribal people from exploitation


11. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

  1. State Forest Department
  2. District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
  3. Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
  4. Gram Sabha


12. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

  1. with the consent of all the States
  2. with the consent of the majority of States
  3. with the consent of the States concerned
  4. without the consent of any State


13. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


14. Consider the following statements

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


15. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India can

  1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. speak in the Lok Sabha vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3 only


16. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

  1. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
  2. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
  3. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
  4. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill


17. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
  2. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
  3. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
  4. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support


Civil Services Examination 2012


1. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the constitution of India?

  1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to Life under Article 21
  2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
  3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


2. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

  1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
  2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
  3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


3. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:

  1. To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
  2. To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
  3. To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
  4. To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members


4. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

  1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
  2. Organisation village Panchayat
  3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
  4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


5. Consider the following statements:

  1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
  2. It is within the preview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
  3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. None


6. With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
  2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
  3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


7. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

  1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
  2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
  3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None


8. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

  1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
  2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
  3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
  4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 3 and 4


9. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

  1. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
  2. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
  3. To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
  4. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners


10. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Sixth Schedule
  5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3, 4 and 5 only
  3. 1, 2 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


11. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

  1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
  2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
  3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
  4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


12. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

  1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
  2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
  3. must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
  4. must be a member of the Lok Sabha


13. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
  2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2


14. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

  1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
  2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
  3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


15. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

  1. Ordinary Legislation
  2. Money Bill
  3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


16. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

  1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
  2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
  3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
  4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


17. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
  3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
  4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


18. Which of the following are the methods of parliamentary control over public finance in India?

  1. Placing Annual Financial Statements before the parliament
  2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
  3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
  4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
  5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Civil Services Examination 2011


1. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

  1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
  2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
  3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


2. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

  1. The President of India
  2. The Parliament of India
  3. The Prime Minister of India
  4. The Union Finance Minister


3. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

  1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
  2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
  3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


4. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha:

  1. the Budget is modified and presented again
  2. the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
  3. the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
  4. the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers


5. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a ‘Fundamental Duty’?

  1. To vote in public elections
  2. To develop the scientific temper
  3. To safeguard public property
  4. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals


6. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
  2. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
  3. It ensures transparency in financial administration
  4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.


7. Consider the following:

  1. Right to Education.
  2. Right to Equal Access to Public Service.
  3. Right to Food.

Which of the above is / are Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


8. Consider the following statements:

In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

  1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
  2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
  3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


9. What is the difference between “vote- on-account” and “interim budget”?

  1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
  2. A “vote-an-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2